Reply from Typewriter on Apr 16 at 1:42 AM Hi HJ, If the customer has paid $99 to the seller (your company) for certain goods. Then when customer returns those goods, it shall get back $99*. Even if the sales order and billing document have $100 but the customer has paid $99 due to the payment terms conditionalities, thus customer shall be refunded $99. From my understanding, technically this is done in copy control, field FPLA : transferring condition records. *Ofcourse if special agreements exist then the amount could be different.
| | | ---------------Original Message--------------- From: hjvanes Sent: Sunday, April 15, 2012 11:26 PM Subject: Payment Term With Discount An sales order va01, billing document -vf01 and payment clearance done on a particular customer f-28 within 7 days to get the discount. It uses payment term set to the customer respectively for a discount 1% 30 days EoM. so $100 with discount of 1% within 7days requires the customer to pay $99. The customer pays this and is cleared through f-28. Now what if the customer returns the goods, a credit memo is raised with reference to the billing document? I do not understand how the system determines the amount that we need to return is $99 and not $100 as originally raised in the sales order and billing doc. Hope somebody can help me understand this please. Thank you. regards, HJ | | Reply to this email to post your response. __.____._ | _.____.__ |
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